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Review Question - QID 108647

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QID 108647 (Type "108647" in App Search)
A 15-year-old female presents to her pediatrician’s office for severe menstrual cramping. The patient underwent menarche at age 11, and her periods were irregular every 2-3 months for two years. After that, her cycles became roughly regular every 28-35 days, but she has had extremely painful cramps and often has to miss school. The cramps are intermittent and feel like a dull ache in the center of her abdomen, and there is usually accompanying back pain. The patient has been using heating pads with limited relief. She reports some periods being “really heavy” and requires a superabsorbent pad every 6 hours for 2 days each cycle, but this does not limit her activities. She denies any bowel or bladder changes. The patient had normal development throughout childhood, is on the soccer team at school, and is not sexually active. Her father has hypertension and her mother has endometriosis and heavy periods. On exam, the patient is 5 feet 5 inches and weighs 158 pounds (BMI 26.3 kg/m^2). She is well appearing and has no abdominal tenderness. She has Tanner IV breasts and Tanner IV pubic hair, and external genitalia are normal. Which of the following is the best next step for this patient’s menstrual cramps?

Von Willebrand factor antigen assay

2%

1/45

Pelvic ultrasound

9%

4/45

MRI of the pelvis

0%

0/45

NSAIDs

87%

39/45

Increased exercise

0%

0/45

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This young patient with painful menses and no signs of other pathologies most likely has primary dysmenorrhea, or menstrual cramping not due to a pathologic cause. Treatment should begin with NSAIDs and possibly combined oral contraceptives.

This patient’s periods were irregular after menarche, likely due to immaturity of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis. After two years, her cycles became regular and thus likely ovulatory. This tends to be when primary dysmenorrhea begins. The patient’s description of the pain, her normal exam, and the lack of red flag symptoms (unilateral pain, bowel or bladder symptoms, history of pelvic inflammatory disease, etc.) are consistent with this diagnosis. Otherwise, ovarian cysts, endometriosis, fibroids, adenomyosis, or PID could be on the differential. Many of these conditions tend to occur in women 30-40 years old and are therefore unlikely in this patient. Using history and physical exam to exclude such causes of secondary dysmenorrhea is generally sufficient; lab tests and imaging are not indicated in the initial workup. Empiric treatment with NSAIDs, estrogen-progestin OCPs, or both should be tried, with persistent symptoms prompting further evaluation such as laparoscopy or progesterone-containing intrauterine devices. Adolescents typically experience natural improvement in dysmenorrhea and can be trialed off treatment after several years.

Incorrect Answers:
Answer 1: Von Willebrand factor deficiency is a common cause of heavy menstruation, which is classically defined as more than 80 mL of blood loss each cycle. This definition is not practical, and more emphasis is now being placed on how much a woman’s bleeding impinges on her activities. This patient’s quantification and description of her bleeding do not suggest actual menorrhagia, so testing for von Willebrand disease is not indicated. Furthermore, this condition would not cause dysmenorrhea.

Answer 2: Pelvic ultrasound is useful for identifying fibroids, endometriomas, and adenomyosis as causes of secondary dysmenorrhea. However, this patient more likely has primary dysmenorrhea, for which empiric treatment is indicated. If she were to return in 3-6 months with continued symptoms despite NSAIDs and OCPs, ultrasound may be a reasonable option if the exam is tolerable.

Answer 3: MRI of the pelvis is helpful in diagnosing and characterizing causes of secondary dysmenorrhea. As with ultrasound, this imaging is unncessary for this patient’s presentation, which is classic for primary dysmenorrhea. If she were older, had bulk symptoms (urinary or bowel symptoms), or unilateral pain suggesting an ovarian mass, then MRI of the pelvis would be an option.

Answer 5: Increased exercise is thought to have a mildly beneficial effect on dysmenorrhea. However, this patient already plays soccer and is likely physically active. Furthermore, her symptoms are causing significant functional impairment by causing her to miss school, so a more effective and validated treatment is needed.

Bullet Summary:
Primary dysmenorrhea is menstrual cramping without a pathologic cause and often occurs in newly ovulatory young women with increased prostaglandin levels. Physical exam is normal and there are no red flag symptoms such as bowel/bladder changes or unilateral pain, and empiric treatment with NSAIDs or combination OCPs is indicated.

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