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Review Question - QID 107286

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QID 107286 (Type "107286" in App Search)
A 19-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his roommate for 'strange' behavior over the past 48 hours. The patient states that he is hearing voices speak to him, giving him secret messages and instructions to carry out. He believes that the FBI is following him and spying on his conversations. The patient is concerned that they are listening to these messages and will find out his secrets. The patient's roommate states that his symptoms started 8 months ago, and that they have been off and on. The patient came to the ED several weeks ago for similar symptoms but left against medical advice. The patient's roommate does not believe the patient ingested any substance or used any recreational drugs prior to this episode. A negative drug screen is obtained and confirms this. Physical examination does not reveal any abnormalities. Which of the following treatments might best target this patient's symptoms?

Sertraline

0%

0/23

Risperidone

61%

14/23

Haloperidol

22%

5/23

Chlorpromazine

9%

2/23

Psychotherapy

4%

1/23

Select Answer to see Preferred Response

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This patient is suffering from schizophrenia, manifesting with paranoid delusions and auditory hallucinations for at least six months duration. The atypical antipsychotic risperidone can be used to treat these symptoms.

Schizophrenia is more common in males and typically has an earlier onset in comparison to females. Overall, it usually manifests during the late teens to mid-30s. Symptoms can be either positive or negative. Positive symptoms include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or catatonic behavior. Negative symptoms include flat affect, social withdrawal, lack of motivation, or poverty of speech/thought.

Incorrect Answers:
Answer 1: Sertraline is an SSRI utilized in the treatment of depressive and anxiety disorders; SSRIs do not have a role in the treatment of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

Answer 3: Haloperidol is a high-potency, first generation (typical) antipsychotic; the atypical (2nd generation) antipsychotics are the preferred first line treatment for schizophrenia.

Answer 4: Chlorpromazine is a low-potency, first generation (typical) antipsychotic; the atypical (2nd generation) antipsychotics are preferred first line treatment for schizophrenia.

Answer 5: While psychotherapy is a beneficial adjunct to antipsychotic treatment in the management of schizophrenia, this patient's symptoms necessitate an antipsychotic.

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