Review Question - QID 105833

A 33-year-old male with a history of HIV presents to the emergency department at the urging of his friends with a 1-week history of fever, severe headache, and neck pain. Per his friends, this morning he awoke and seemed very confused. According to the the patient's records, his most recent CD4+ count 2 weeks ago was 34 and he admits to being poorly compliant on his HAART regimen because of the side effects. A lumbar puncture is performed which demonstrates severely elevated opening pressure, increased lymphocytes, elevated protein, and decreased glucose. An MRI is also obtained which demonstrates the findings shown in Figure A and CSF culture ultimately yields the results in Figure B. What is the best initial management of this patient?