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Review Question - QID 105176

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QID 105176 (Type "105176" in App Search)
A 20-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with painful abdominal cramping. She states she has missed her menstrual period for 5 months, which her primary care physician attributes to her obesity. She has a history of a seizure disorder treated with valproic acid; however, she has not had a seizure in over 10 years and is no longer taking medications for her condition. She has also been diagnosed with pseudoseizures for which she takes fluoxetine and clonazepam. Her temperature is 98.0°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 174/104 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Neurologic exam is unremarkable. Abdominal exam is notable for a morbidly obese and distended abdomen that is nontender. Laboratory studies are ordered as seen below.

Serum:
hCG: 100,000 mIU/mL

Urine:
Color: Amber
hCG: Positive
Protein: Positive

During the patient's evaluation, she experiences 1 episode of tonic-clonic motions which persist for 5 minutes. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate for this patient?

Lorazepam

6%

3/52

Magnesium

27%

14/52

Phenobarbital

65%

34/52

Phenytoin

0%

0/52

Propofol

0%

0/52

Select Answer to see Preferred Response

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This woman is likely suffering from eclampsia given her urine dipstick positive for hCG and protein in the setting of hypertension and seizures. Magnesium sulfate infusion can help both prevent and treat eclamptic seizures.

Eclampsia is a life-threatening complication of pregnancy characterized by tonic-clonic seizures. It usually occurs in women who experience preeclampsia during pregnancy which usually presents with hypertension and proteinuria. Risk factors for developing preeclampsia/eclampsia include preexisting hypertension, diabetes mellitus, autoimmune disorders, preexisting renal disease, a family history of preeclampsia, obesity, multiple gestation, or a previous pregnancy complicated by preeclampsia/eclampsia. Any patient with severe preeclampsia or eclampsia should immediately be given magnesium, blood pressure medications (such as labetalol or nifedipine), and have the fetus delivered.

Incorrect Answers:
Answers 1, 3, 4, & 5: Lorazepam followed by phenytoin, then phenobarbital, and finally propofol would be the order in which medications would be given in status epilepticus (assuming no response to the previous medication). It is likely this patient has been pregnant for several months, and this has not been detected given her morbid obesity. Her positive hCG and proteinuria support a diagnosis of eclampsia.

Bullet Summary:
Magnesium is appropriate treatment and prevention of seizures in preeclampsia/eclampsia.

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