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Review Question - QID 103302

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QID 103302 (Type "103302" in App Search)
A 7-year-old boy with sickle cell disease is brought into the clinic by his mother for knee and hip pain. The child has been admitted several times in the past for pain crises managed with fluids and hydromorphone. He started complaining of worsening hip pain over the last several days and now walks with a limp. His temperature is 97.9°F (36.6°C), blood pressure is 84/54 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. On physical exam, the hip appears normal and is cool to the touch. There is decreased range of motion at the hip and pain with ambulation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Arthrocentesis

40%

8/20

CT

10%

2/20

Ibuprofen and acetaminophen

25%

5/20

MRI

5%

1/20

Radiograph

15%

3/20

Select Answer to see Preferred Response

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This patient with sickle cell disease most likely has avascular necrosis (AVN) of the hip given his hip pain, cool/normal appearing joint, and restricted range of motion. The most appropriate initial step in management is a radiograph of the hip.

Avascular necrosis of the hip presents with hip pain and a restricted range of motion. It occurs secondary to interruption of the blood supply to the bone resulting in necrosis. Diagnosis of AVN of the hip can involve several imaging modalities. The most appropriate initial step in management is a plain film of the hip which can show necrosis and collapse of the femoral head. MRI is the most accurate test in uncertain cases. The treatment of AVN of the hip is generally casting and reduced weight bearing; however, severe/persistent cases may require orthopedic surgery.

Incorrect Answers:
Answer 2: Arthrocentesis is appropriate in the management of septic arthritis which presents with an exquisitely tender hip in a child who refuses to bear weight. The hip will be red, hot, and tender and there is severe pain with passive range of motion. The CRP and ESR are often elevated and treatment involves antibiotics and surgical washout.

Answer 2: CT scan may better characterize avascular necrosis and is more sensitive than a radiograph and less sensitive than a MRI in working up this condition. It is not the most appropriate initial step.

Answer 3: Ibuprofen and acetaminophen is appropriate management of transient synovitis of the hip which presents with hip pain after a viral illness. Children may complain of hip pain and may walk with a limp; however, they are still willing to bear wait and the joint appears normal. There is no reduced range of motion in this condition.

Answer 4: MRI is the most accurate test in the diagnosis of avascular necrosis of the hip and could be used in cases where the diagnosis is uncertain.

Bullet Summary:
The most appropriate initial step in management in the workup of avascular necrosis is a radiograph.

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