Please confirm topic selection

Are you sure you want to trigger topic in your Anconeus AI algorithm?

Please confirm action

You are done for today with this topic.

Would you like to start learning session with this topic items scheduled for future?

Review Question - QID 103023

In scope icon M 11 E
QID 103023 (Type "103023" in App Search)
A 32-year-old man comes into your office because of pain in his right knee, left elbow, and left wrist. It started about a week ago but has particularly localized to his wrist. The patient states that he has 2 sexual partners. He states he has also had some white discharge from his penis with pruritis and pain during urination. His temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 124/84 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals pain upon palpation of the patient's left wrist which also appears erythematous and swollen. What is the best next step in management for this patient?

Arthrocentesis

43%

3/7

Azithromycin, ceftriaxone, and vancomycin

57%

4/7

Ibuprofen and observation

0%

0/7

Methotrexate

0%

0/7

MRI

0%

0/7

Select Answer to see Preferred Response

bookmode logo Review TC In New Tab

This patient likely has a sexually transmitted disease (given his urethral discharge and dysuria) and a migratory arthritis that has localized suggesting a diagnosis of reactive arthritis, gonococcal arthritis, or septic arthritis. He should first be managed with arthrocentesis prior to treating his condition.

Reactive arthritis, also called Reiter syndrome, is the most common type of inflammatory polyarthritis in young men. It is more common in those with the HLA-B27 genotype and occurs in those with infections with organisms such as Chlamydia trachomatis (though Salmonella, Shigella, and Campylobacter are less frequent causes). It commonly presents with polyarthritis, conjunctivitis, uveitis, and genitourinary symptoms such as dysuria, polyuria, and penile discharge. The differential for a red, hot, tender, and inflamed joint includes gonococcal arthritis or septic arthritis. Prior to treatment, any patient with a red and hot joint should have arthrocentesis and fluid analysis performed and have a swab for gonorrhoae and chlamydia sent off. Subsequently, the patient can be treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics and surgical washout (if indicated).

Incorrect Answers:
Answer 2: Azithromycin, ceftriaxone, and vancomycin are broad-spectrum antibiotics that cover both for this patient's STD and a septic arthritis. These antibiotics may be started after arthrocentesis and GC/chlamydia testing have been performed.

Answer 3: Ibuprofen and observation is appropriate management of osteoarthritis which presents with cool/normal skin in a weight bearing joint typically in an obese patient.

Answer 4: Methotrexate is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)that is indicated for long-term management to improve outcomes and reduce the incidence of permanent joint deformity in rheumatoid arthritis which presents in a middle-aged woman with symmetric joint pain that is worse in the morning and improves throughout the day.

Answer 5: MRI is an appropriate diagnostic test for osteomyelitis which may present with focal bone pain, a fever, and an elevated ESR/CRP. It would not offer culture results and a gram stain/crystal analysis necessary to diagnose this patient's possible septic arthritis.

Bullet Summary:
A red, hot, inflamed, and tender joint is concerning for septic arthritis and must initially be managed with arthrocentesis.

Authors
Rating
Please Rate Question Quality

4.5

  • star icon star icon star icon
  • star icon star icon star icon
  • star icon star icon star icon
  • star icon star icon star icon
  • star icon star icon star icon

(8)

Attach Treatment Poll
Treatment poll is required to gain more useful feedback from members.
Please enter Question Text
Please enter at least 2 unique options
Please enter at least 2 unique options
Please enter at least 2 unique options