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Review Question - QID 102998

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QID 102998 (Type "102998" in App Search)
A 33-year-old man presents to the infectious diseases clinic for follow-up. He was recently admitted to the hospital with fever, shortness of breath, and cough, and was found to have Pneumocystic jirovecii pneumonia and a new diagnosis of HIV. His CD4 count is 175, viral load is pending. As part of routine laboratory studies given his new diagnosis, an RPR was found to be positive with a titer of 1:64, and this is confirmed with a positive FTA-ABS. He is unsure when or how he acquired HIV or syphilis. His neurological examination is normal, and he has no symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management:

Perform lumbar puncture, treat based on presence or absence of CNS disease

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Treat with three weekly injections of penicillin, obtain titers in 3 months

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Treat with three weekly injections of penicillin, obtain titers in 6 months

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Treat with a single injection of penicillin, obtain titers in 3 months

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Treat with a single injection of penicillin, obtain titers in 6 months

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Select Answer to see Preferred Response

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This patient presents following a new diagnosis of HIV. He is found to have latent syphilis of unknown duration without neurologic signs or symptoms. In this instance, and for patients who are HIV negative, the management is to treat with weekly penicillin for three weeks, and obtain titers in 6 months to assess response to treatment.

Syphilis manifests as primary, secondary, tertiary, and latent disease. In patients with no active signs or symptoms, and who have had the disease for an unknown period of time (e.g. unknown possible source and no recollection of symptoms), this is termed "latent syphilis of unknown duration", and is managed similarly to late (tertiary) syphilis. In HIV-infected patients, this should include a CSF evaluation if neurosyphilis is suspected, as in HIV-negative patients. The standard treatment includes 3 weekly IM injections of 2.4 million units of benzathine penicillin. Titers should be checked at 6 months to prove infection clearance.

Mattei et al. discuss the re-emergence of syphilis as an important pathogen in clinical medicine. They mention specific increased incidence among men who have sex with men (MSM); among high-risk populations, they emphasize the importance of screening with RPR testing. New diagnostic techniques are being studied, including point-of-care testing for resource limited settings and a novel CSF marker to detect neurosyphilis. Penicillin is the optimal treatment, providing no patient allergies.

Gonzalez-Lopez et al. conducted a retrospective analysis to determine predictors of disease response among patients with syphilis; roughly half were co-infected with HIV and roughly half were MSM. Approximately one quarter of patients experienced treatment failure; risk factors for treatment failure included male sex, HIV positivity, and having late stage syphilis. Over the 2-year follow up period, response rates were similar between HIV-positive and HIV-negative patients.

Incorrect Answers:
Answer 1: This patient displays no overt signs or symptoms of neurosyphilis. Although previously the practice had been to perform CSF sampling on all patients coinfected with HIV and syphilis, this has recently been questioned.
Answer 2: No scenario would be managed in this specific way.
Answer 4: A single dose of penicillin with response assessment at 3 months would be the appropriate management of primary or secondary syphilis.
Answer 5: A single dose of penicillin with response assessment at 6 months would be the appropriate management of early latent syphilis.

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