A 27-year-old female presents to her OB/GYN for a check-up. During her visit, a pelvic exam and Pap smear are performed. The patient does not have any past medical issues and has had routine gynecologic care with normal pap smears every 3 years since age 21. The results of the Pap smear demonstrate atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?