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Review Question - QID 214376

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QID 214376 (Type "214376" in App Search)
A 36-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe left eye pain with associated vision loss. She denies any physical or chemical trauma to the eye, recent use of eye drops, or foreign body sensation within the affected eye. Approximately 2 weeks ago, she had an upper respiratory tract infection that was symptomatically managed with ibuprofen. She reports that 8 months ago, she experienced bilateral lower extremity weakness and urinary retention and was admitted to the hospital where she was appropriately treated. She did not follow-up for outpatient treatment. She has no past medical history and is only taking a daily multivitamin. On physical examination, she has consensual pupillary response when light is shined on the right eye. When light is swung from the right eye to the left eye, there is a relative dilation of both pupils. Her visual acuity in the right eye is 20/40 and in the left eye is 20/200. Her extraocular movements are intact; however, pain is produced with eye movement most notably involving the left eye. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient's symptoms?

Cyclophosphamide

0%

0/3

Methylprednisolone

33%

1/3

Ocrelizumab

0%

0/3

Prednisone

67%

2/3

Rituximab

0%

0/3

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This young patient with optic neuritis (afferent pupillary defect, painful eye movements, and decreased visual acuity) and a prior history of transverse myelitis (bilateral lower extremity weakness and urinary retention) is most likely presenting multiple sclerosis attack (or flare) and should be appropriately treated with intravenous methylprednisolone.

Multiple sclerosis is an immune-mediated demyelinating disorder affecting the central nervous system. Patients can present with optic neuritis, which is due to demyelination affecting the optic nerve. Optic neuritis presents with decreased visual acuity, red desaturation (the color red appears pink, orange, or "washed out"), and pain with eye movements. On physical examination, there is an afferent pupillary defect - when light is shined in the unaffected eye, there is consensual pupillary constriction; however, when swung to the affected eye, there is a relative pupillary dilation. Both oral prednisone and intravenous methylprednisolone are efficacious in hastening recovery; nevertheless, intravenous methylprednisolone is preferred since oral prednisone is associated with an increased risk of developing recurrent optic neuritis.

Incorrect Answers:
Answer 1: Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating medication that cross-links DNA strands and impairs DNA synthesis. This is not used in acute multiple sclerosis flares. However, it is useful in drug regimens to manage certain malignancies (e.g., acute lymphoblastic leukemia).

Answer 3: Ocrelizumab is a monoclonal antibody against CD20 positive B-cells. It is a disease-modifying agent used to decrease the rate of a future multiple sclerosis flares and to decrease the rate of accumulation of demyelinating lesions. This medication is not used to treat an acute multiple sclerosis flare.

Answer 4: Prednisone is an oral medication that suppresses the immune system by a multitude of mechanisms (e.g., decreased leukocyte migration). It is associated with an increased risk of developing recurrent optic neuritis in patients with optic neuritis. Patients have better outcomes with IV methylprednisolone.

Answer 5: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody against CD20 positive B-cells. It is not used in the management of acute multiple sclerosis flares. It is useful in the treatment of certain malignancies (e.g., chronic lymphocytic leukemia) and vasculitides (e.g., granulomatosis with polyangiitis).

Bullet Summary:
The first-line treatment of an acute multiple sclerosis attack with optic neuritis is with intravenous methylprednisolone.

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